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writers contacting me individually


mfuabep  1 | -   Student
Mar 29, 2021 | #1
is it common for writers working for certain websites (any essay writing services for example) to contact me individually after having worked for me through the website?

I actually had few such cases and it worked out okay since the cost was lower (since there is no second man taking fees)

Have you experienced such cases as well? Well I know its against their websites' policy, but hell, they do exploit their writers!
Cite  2 | 1853 ☆☆☆  
Mar 31, 2021 | #2
That is actually against company policy. The writers are not allowed to contact the clients directly for any reason, before or after the completion of the order. However, some writers do it just the same, hoping to branch out on their own by building their client base. Just be careful when dealing directly with the writers. Some of them work well in a company setting, but fail to pweform as expected when directly hired. It is not really common practice for company attached writers to contact you directly so be cautious even if you have worked with the writer before.
Alex587  2 | 15   Student
May 20, 2021 | #3
agree with @cite
noted  10 | 2083 ☆☆☆☆☆  
Nov 02, 2021 | #4
I do not see anything wrong with direct solicitation when a writer has a chance to do so. Sure, the company can claim it is against their policies but, consider that they claim to not have a work contract with their writers as well. Given that scenario, what company policy was violated? They cannot claim to not have an employer-employee relationship, then claim company violations when it suits them to do so. No, the company cannot claim violations just because a client is being prrated. They lost that right when they refused to have a well spelled out work contract with the freelance writer.
The opinions are that of the author's alone based on an individual capacity. Opinions are provided "as is" and are not error-free.
FreelanceWriter  6 | 3089   ☆☆☆   Freelance Writer
Nov 04, 2021 | #5
They cannot claim to not have an employer-employee relationship, then claim company violations when it suits them to do so.

No, the company cannot claim violations just because a client is being prrated.

They lost that right when they refused to have a well spelled out work contract with the freelance writer.

I'm sorry, but you (still) don't seem to understand even the most basic things about what contracts are, or the fact that the distinction between "independent contractors" and fulltime "employees" has absolutely nothing to do with whether or not there might still be an enforceable contractual relationship between essay companies and the independent freelance contractors who write for them. Do you read responses to your posts? Because I've explained all of this before, but you still post the same exact incorrect statements over and over as though you've never even bothered to read direct responses to your posts.

First, most essay companies do require their writers to sign formal contracts that clearly spell out the respective obligations of both parties. Typically, those contracts strictly prohibit writers from privately soliciting any clients of the company, and those prohibitions are valid and fully enforceable; they're also completely standard in almost any industry where employers use independent contractors. Second, the policies of any company are whatever that company says they are, and as long as those policies aren't inherently illegal, their writers either have to accept those policies or find work elsewhere. Even without any formal contract -- and as I've explained, most companies do require their writers to sign formal contracts -- a contractual relationship still exists between the parties, and it's defined by whatever the two parties agreed to in their communications, such as in emails simply detailing that the writer will provide non-plagiarized work and that the company will pay $__ per written page. Those are enforceable obligations on both sides, irrespective of whether or not anything referred to as a "contract" was ever executed. It's always more difficult to prove what a company would have to prove to win a case without a written contract, obviously, but that's a matter of what evidence there is, not whether or not a contractual obligation exists. The same goes for the difference between written contracts and oral contracts: oral contracts are equally valid; it's just much harder to prove anything based on an oral agreement.

You seem to think that: (1) companies cannot have contracts with independent contractors because only fulltime employees can be required to sign contracts; (2) that the respective obligations of the parties can't exist and/or are not enforceable unless they've signed something formally referred to as a "contract," and that (3) companies cannot prohibit their independent contractors from poaching their clients unless there's a formal written contract saying that. You're 100% wrong on all counts.




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