They cannot claim to not have an employer-employee relationship, then claim company violations when it suits them to do so.
No, the company cannot claim violations just because a client is being prrated.
They lost that right when they refused to have a well spelled out work contract with the freelance writer.
I'm sorry, but you (still) don't seem to understand even the most basic things about what contracts are, or the fact that the distinction between "independent contractors" and fulltime "employees" has absolutely nothing to do with whether or not there might still be an enforceable contractual relationship between essay companies and the independent freelance contractors who write for them. Do you read responses to your posts? Because I've explained all of this before, but you still post the same exact incorrect statements over and over as though you've never even bothered to read direct responses to your posts.
First, most essay companies
do require their writers to sign formal contracts that clearly spell out the respective obligations of both parties. Typically, those contracts strictly prohibit writers from privately soliciting any clients of the company, and those prohibitions are valid and fully enforceable; they're also completely standard in almost
any industry where employers use independent contractors. Second, the policies of any company are whatever that company says they are, and as long as those policies aren't inherently illegal, their writers either have to accept those policies or find work elsewhere. Even without any formal contract -- and as I've explained, most companies
do require their writers to sign formal contracts -- a contractual relationship still exists between the parties, and it's defined by whatever the two parties agreed to in their communications, such as in emails simply detailing that the writer will provide non-plagiarized work and that the company will pay $__ per written page. Those are enforceable obligations on both sides, irrespective of whether or not anything referred to as a "contract" was ever executed. It's always more difficult to prove what a company would have to prove to win a case without a written contract, obviously, but that's a matter of what evidence there is, not whether or not a contractual obligation exists. The same goes for the difference between written contracts and oral contracts: oral contracts are equally valid; it's just much harder to prove anything based on an oral agreement.
You seem to think that: (1) companies cannot have contracts with independent contractors because only fulltime employees can be required to sign contracts; (2) that the respective obligations of the parties can't exist and/or are not enforceable unless they've signed something formally referred to as a "contract," and that (3) companies cannot prohibit their independent contractors from poaching their clients unless there's a formal written contract saying that. You're 100% wrong on all counts.